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Complete Nutrition Test 1

vaibhavpatel1028@gmail.com September 23, 2024

Gujrat VO Course Animal Nutrition Complete Nutrition Test 1

1. A polyphenol present in cotton seeds which interferes with utilization of metal ions is:

a) Propofol

b) Gossypol

c) Mimosine

d) Thioglucoside

2. if an animal consumes 5 kg Dry matter and excretes 6 kg of faeces with 50% moisture, the digestibility coefficient will be:

a) 40%

b) 50%

c) 60%

d) None of the above

3. Which of the following vitamins is having hormone like properties?

a) Vitamin A

b) Vitamin E

c) Vitamin D

d) Vitamin C

4. Energy requirement (Kcal/Kg feed) in broiler finisher ration as per 815, 2007 is:

a) 2800

b) 2900

c) 3100

d) 3200

5. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid for poultry:

a) Arginine

b) Glicine

c) Valine

d) Glutamate

6. The protein accounts for about average —————— % of total protein in the skeletal muscle:

a) 13

b) 15

c) 19

d) 23

7. The mineral supplement in artificial diet of fishes should be

a) Nil

b) 1-2%

c) 4-5%

d) Varies according to geographical distributions

8. Which fodder crop is most suitable for silage production?

a) Berseem

b) Lucerne

c) Lobia

d) Maize

9. What should be the recommended crude protein content (%) in calf starter?

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) 22

10. The essential fatty acid which is dietary essential for cats but not for dogs:

a) Linoleic acid

b) Linolenic acid

c) Arachidonic acid

d) All of the above

11. Curled toe paralysis in chicks is caused by the deficiency of which of the following?

a) B1

b) B2

c) B6

d) B12.

12. Black tongue in dogs is caused due to deficiency of:

a) Thiamin

b) Niacin

c) Riboflavin

d) Vitamin C

13. Buffaloes in India are found to suffer from Degnala disease due to toxicity of

a) Vitamin E

b) Fluorine

c) Selenium

d) Phosphorus

14. Vitamin B1 deficiency in poultry causes:

a) Encephalomalacia

b) Polyneuritis

c) ‘Curled toe’ paralysis

d) Black tongue

15. Perosis in birds is due to deficiency of:

a) Calcium

b) Phosphorus

c) Manganese

d) Magnesium

16. Mulberry Heart Disease in Swine is due to deficiency of:

a) Se

b) Zn

c) Cu

d) None of the above

17. Salt used as laxative in simple indigestion

(a) Calcium

(b) Potassium

(d) All of the above

18. In milk fever, body temperature of animal remains

(a) Subnormal

(b) Elevated

(d) Normal

19. Ketosis occurs due to:

(a) Positive energy balance in body

(b) Negative energy balance in body

(d) None of the above

20. Pica in animals occurs due to deficiency of

(a) Magnesium

(b) Calcium

(d) Potassium

21. Eclampsia in dog is caused by deficiency of

(a) Iron

(b) Phosphorus

(d) Copper

22. Basic biochemical defect in PPH

(a) Hypocalcemia

(b) Hypoglycemia

(d) None of the above

23. Following drug is specifically recommended in the treatment of post-parturienthaemoglobinuria

(a) Calcium borogluconate

(b) 50% Dextrose

(d) 10% Magnesium sulphate

24. The following ingredient can be used as source of protein in animal feed.

(a) Wheat

(b) Barley

(d) Soya bean Meal

25. Curled toe paralysis in poultry occurs due to deficiency of

(a) Thiamin

(b) Vitamin A

(d) Riboflavin

26. The most preferred green fodder in silage making is

(a) Berseem

(b) Jowar

(d) Maize

27. The ideal moisture content of hay is

(a) 25%

(b) 35%

(d) 8%

28.Urea should be incorporated in concentrate mixture at rate of

(a) 2%

(b) 1%

(d) 4%

29. Which one of the following is Digestible-Nutrient system type feeding standard?

(a) Hay standard

(b) Armsby feeding standard

(d) Morrison standard

30. In Van Soest method of Forage analysis, the hemicellulose is determined as

(a) NDF-ADF

(b) ADF-Lignin

(d) None of these

31. Colostrum is fed to calves at the rate of

(a) 20% of BW

(b) 15% of BW

(d) 5% of BW

32: Dry matter intake in Indian breeds of goats varies between

(a) 10-25 g/w0.75 kg

(b) 20-40 g/w0.75 kg

(d) 100-140 g/w0.75 kg

33. How much more nutrients than the maintenance needs should be provided to breeding rams during breeding season?

(a) 30%

(b) 40%

(d) 60%

34. Maximum level of inclusion of maize in poultry ration is

(a) 50%

(b) 60%

(d) 80%

35. Which one of the amino acids is of greater practical importance in the diet of swine?

(a) Leucine

(b) Lysine

(d) Methionine

36. How much kg of water per kilogram of feed intake is required by horses?

(a) 1.0-1.5 kg

(b) 2.0-4.0 kg

(d) 6.5-8.0 kg

37. The pH range of good quality silage is

(a) 3.5-4.2

(b) 3.2-3.5

(d) 4.5-4.8

38. Non-digestible food substances that selectively stimulate the growth of favourable species of bacteria in gut are called

(a) Prebiotics

(b) Probiotics

(d) Enzymes

39. Curled toe paralysis in Chickens results due to deficiency of

(a) Vitamin B1

(b) Vitamin B6

(d) Vitamin B12

40. Lactic acidosis is caused by

(a) Accidental ingestion of large quantities of wheat grains

(b) Excessive intake of green fodder

(d) Excessive intake of Urea

41. Osteophagia, infantophagia, and coprophagia are types of which condition?

(a) Allotriophagia

(b) Anorexia

(d) Aphagia

42. A practical way to supplement iron and copper to the new born piglets to prevent piglet anaemia is

(a) Giving injection of copper to new born piglets.

(b) Giving injection of Vitamin E to new born piglet.

(d) Allowing the new born piglets to access soil.

43. Feeding colostrum within first two hours of the birth of new born is essential because

(a) It is iron rich.

(b) It is Vitamin B Complex rich.

(d) It contains gamma globulins which can get absorbed as such in the blood stream only during the first few hours after birth.

44. Fatty liver disease is often associated with

(A) Choline

(B) Niacin

(D) Pyridoxine

45. As a general rule of animal feeding

(A) 2/3 of nutrient should come from roughage and 1/3 from concentrate

(B) 1/3 of nutrient should come from roughage and 2/3″ from concentrate

(D) Animal should be fed roughage only

46. Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin

(A) Vitamin B1

(B) Vitamin B2

(D) Vitamin E

47. Pica is caused mainly due to deficiency of

(A) Magnesium

(B) Boron

(D) Nitrogen

48. Which of the following mineral deficiency cause grass tetany

(A) Potassium

(B) Phosphorus

(D) Calcium

49. Enzootic ataxia is caused due to the deficiency of

(A) Iron

(B) Copper

(D) Zinc

50. Milk fever in high yielding animal is due to deficiency of

(A) Calcium

(B) Sodium

(D) Zinc

51. Ketosis occurs due to

(A) Positive protein balance in body

(B) Positive energy balance in body

(D) None of these

52. New born calf should get first colostrum from its dam within

(A) 30 minutes after birth

(B) 12 hours after birth

(D) 48 hours after birth

53. Which one of the following is Pregnancy maintaining hormone?

(A) Estrogen

(B) Oxytocin

(D) Relaxin

54. In milk fever, body temperature of animal is

(A) Highly elevated

(B) Elevated

(D) Normal

55. Silage is

(A) Preserved dry fodder

(B) Fermented fodder

(D) Nane of these

56. Colostrum is fed to a new born calf at what percentage of its body weight?

(a) 5%

(b) 10%

(d) 20%

57. Very good silage should have pH ranging from

(a) 4.2 to 4.5

(b) 4.5 to 4.8

(d) 4.8 to 5.0

58. A deficiency condition Enzootic ataxia has been associated with pastures as low as 24 mg/kg DM of which mineral element

(a) Sulphur

(b) Magnesium

(d) Zinc

59. Percentage of gross energy of food lost as methane in ruminants is

(a) 5-6 percent

(b) 7-9 percent

(d) 3-4 percent

60. Starch equivalent based energy system was given by

(a) Morrison

(b) Armsby

(d) Dubois

61. Crazy chick disease is caused due to the deficiency of

(a) Vitamin E

(b) Vitamin B

(d) Vitamin B2

62. Anti-nutritional factor groundnut cake is a present in

(a) aflatoxin

(b) glycogen

(d) None of the above

63. Heat treatment can destroy which anti- nutritive factor found in soyabean cake

(a) Glucosinolate

(b) Aflatoxin

(d) Ricin

64. Post parturient haemoglobinuria or Red Water Disease is basically caused due to acute deficiency of which mineral in the blood?

(a) Copper

(b) Magnesium

(d) Calcium

65. Blind staggers is a condition of cattle and sheep caused due to subacute poisoning with

(a) Manganese

(b) Belenium

(d) None of the above

66. Sulphur containing vitamins are

(a) Riboflavin and biotin

(b) Riboflavin and choline

(d) Biotin and thiamine

67. Probiotic is classified under

(a) feed supplement

(b) feed additive

(d) All of the above

68. Babul seeds contain an antinutritive factor

(a) Tannin

(b) Ricin

(d) Oxalic acid

69. Best crop suitable for silage making is

(a) Jowar

(b) Bajra

(d) Oats

70. Urea poisoning/toxicity in animals is common as they are widely used as nitrogen fertilizers on crops and pasture fields. For treatment of cattle in urea poisoning, acetic acid/vinegar is used in which of the following doses?

(A) 5% vinegar; 2-8 litres

(B) 5% vinegar; 1-2 litres

(D) 2% vinegar; 1-2 litres

71. Which of the following is a cyanogenetic plant?

(A) Maize (Zea Mays)

(B) Wheat (Triticum Aestivum)

(D) Oats (Avena Sativa)

72. The feed allowed for a given animal during a day of 24 hours is called as

(A) Ration

(B) Diet

(D) Complete feed

73. In 1890, a feeding standard based on the “available fuel values of the feeds” was proposed by

(A) Armsby

(B) Atwater

(D) Lehmann

74. In India many workers have followed factorial method where are estimated to assess protein requirement.

(A) DCP and TDN

(B) EUN and MFN

(D) None of the above

75. The pH of very good silage is between

(A) 2-5 to 3-5

(B) 3-5 to 4-2

(D) 4-5 to 4.8

76. The active form of Vitamin D in animal. body is

(A) Ergocalciferol

(B) 7-dehydrocholesterol

(D) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

77. Non-digestible food ingredients that selectively stimulate the growth of favourable species of bacteria in gut are called as

(A) Probiotics

(B) Synbiotics

(D) Postbiotics

78. The protein content of colostrum is

(A) 10

(B) 15

(D) 23

79. Grass tetany is caused by a metabolic deficiency of

(A) Mg

(B) Ca

(D) Ca, Mg and K

80. For Zebu cattle, 1 kg additional amount of concentrate is required for every _kg of milk over and above the maintenance requirement.

(A) 2-5

(B) 3-5

(D) 5-5

81. Which of the following involves the irreversible destruction of the crystalline order in starch granules to make the surface of every molecule accessible to solvents for improving digestibility?

[A] Reconstitution

[B] Extruding

[C] Pelleting

[D] Micronizing

82. For the first three weeks, calf should be provided whole milk at the rate of

[A] 50% of body weight

[B] 30% of body weight

[C] 10% of body weight

[D] 100% of body weight

83. Prepartum feeding of which of the following diets will significantly minimize the occurrence of parturient paresis in dairy cows?

[A] Negative DCAD diet

[B] High energy diet

[C] Positive DCAD diet

[D] Low roughage diet

84. Feeding of concentrate mixture from two weeks before calving is called as

[A] creep feeding

[B] challenge feeding

[C] phase feeding

[D] restricted feeding

85. The proportion of the absorbed nitrogen that is retained by the animal body and utilized for synthesizing body tissue is known as

[A] carbon-nitrogen balance

[B] protein replacement value

[C] chemical score

[D] biological value

86. In the process of hay making, much of the green colouring matter containing carotene is lost due to

[A] fermentation

[B] leaching

[C] bleaching

[D] early cutting

87. Hairless calves and piglets with thick, pulpy skin are born due to deficiency of which of the following minerals in the diet of cow and sow?

[A] Cu

[B] Mg

[D] S

88. Dry matter requirement for a cow weighing 400 kg, giving 10 litres of milk having 4-5% fat is

[A] 2 kg

[B] 4 kg

[C] 10 kg

[D] 20 kg

89. Plants which contain significant amount of saponins are

[A] mustard and rapeseed

[B] sorghum and sudan

[C] lucerne and soybean

[D] subabul and sweet clover

90. Energy calculated as the gross energy provided by a unit of feed minus the gross energy content of the faeces resulting from the consumption of that unit of feed is called as

[A] metabolizable energy

[B] digestible energy

[C] heat increment

[D] net energy

91. Bracken fern plant toxicity is produced mainly in horses and cattle due to the presence of one of the toxic factors mentioned below. Identify it.

[A] Thiaminase

[B] Ptaquiloside

[C] Hematuria factor

[D] Aplastic anaemia factor

92. Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) is caused by

[A] Salmonella abortivoequina

[B] Leptospira pomona

[C] Taylorella equigenitalis

[D] Aspergillus spp.

93. A high incidence of stillbirths and weak, new born animals is common manifestation of

(A) lodine deficiency

(B) Vitamin E deficiency

(D) Copper deficiency

94. The correct order of toxicity of aflatoxins B1, B2, G₁ and G2 is

(A) B₁> G2 > G₁ > B2 1

(B) G₁ > B₁ > G2 > B2

(D) G2 > B2 > G₁ > B₁

95. Which of the following volatile fatty acid is produced when cellulose is major dietary carbohydrate for cattle?

(A) Acetate

(B) Valerate

(D) Propionate

96. The term TDN is used to indicate of feed for ruminant animals.

(A) Digestibility

(B) Energy value

(D) True protein content

97. Which are the substances reducing solubility or interfering utilization of mineral?

a. Lectins

b. Oxalic acid

c. Phytic acid

d. Trypsin

(A) a only

(B) a and b only

(D) c and d only

98. Match the following Vitamin with their deficiency symptoms.

a. Thiamine i. Wasting sickness in cattle

b. Pyridoxine ii. Polyneuritis in chicks

c. Cyanocobalamin iii. Goose step in pigs

d. Pantothenic acid iv. Anemia and convulsions in pigs

Options:

a. A b C d

(A) II IV I III

(B) IV III II I

(D) III I IV II

99. Which of the following are non-nutritive feed additives?

a. Antibiotics

b. Antioxidants

c. Enzymes

Options:

(A) a and b only

(B) b and c only

(D) none

100. Vitamin B1 deficiency in small ruminants causes:

(A) Beri-Beri

(B) Digestive disorders

(D) Polio-encephalomalacia

Answer

b) Gossypol
c) 60%
c) Vitamin D
b) 2900
d) Glutamate
c) 19
c) 4-5%
d) Maize
d) 22
c) Arachidonic acid
b) B2
b) Niacin
c) Selenium
b) Polyneuritis
c) Manganese
a) Se
c) Magnesium
a) Subnormal
b) Negative energy balance in body
c) Phosphorus
c) Calcium
c) Hypophosphatemia
c) Sodium acid phosphate
d) Soya bean Meal
d) Riboflavin
d) Maize
c) 15%
b) 1%
d) Morrison standard
a) NDF-ADF
c) 10% of BW
c) 35-80 g/w0.75 kg
c) 50%
c) 70%
b) Lysine
b) 2.0-4.0 kg
a) 3.5-4.2
a) Prebiotics
c) Vitamin B2
a) Accidental ingestion of large quantities of wheat grains
a) Allotriophagia
c) Painting the udder of sow with thick solution of copper and iron sulphate
d) It contains gamma globulins which can get absorbed as such in the blood stream only during the first few hours after birth
a) Choline
a) 2/3 of nutrient should come from roughage and 1/3 from concentrate
d) Vitamin E
c) Phosphorus
c) Magnesium
b) Copper
a) Calcium
c) Negative energy balance in body
a) 30 minutes after birth
c) Progesterone
c) Subnormal
b) Fermented fodder
b) 10%
c) 3.7 to 4.2
c) Copper
b) 7-9 percent
c) Kellner
a) Vitamin E
a) aflatoxin
c) Trypsin inhibitor
c) Phosphorus
b) Selenium
d) Biotin and thiamine
b) feed additive
a) Tannin
c) Maize
b) 5% vinegar; 1-2 litres
c) Sorghum (Sorghum Sudanense)
a) Ration
b) Atwater
b) EUN and MFN
b) 3-5 to 4-2
d) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
c) Prebiotics
c) 17
c) Mg and Ca
a) 2-5
d) Micronizing
c) 10% of body weight
a) Negative DCAD diet
b) challenge feeding
d) biological value
c) bleaching
a) Cu
c) 10 kg
c) lucerne and soybean
b) digestible energy
b) Ptaquiloside
c) Taylorella equigenitalis
a) Iodine deficiency
c) B₁> G₁ > B2> G2
a) Acetate
b) Energy value
c) b and c only
a) II IV I III
a) a and b only
d) Polio-encephalomalacia

Gujrat VO Course

August, 2024

Participants 6

Complete Nutrition Test 1

vaibhavpatel1028@gmail.com September 23, 2024