Unit 6 Animal Nutrition Quiz

Feeding Practices for Swine Topic 1 MCQs

1. Crude protein percentage of growing/ finishing ration is    JKPSC – 2019  

(A) 10-12

(B) 14-16

(C) 18-20

(D) None of the above

2. Which one of the amino acids is of greater practical importance in the diet of swine?

                                                                                                                 RPSC 2019

(1) Leucine

(2) Lysine

(3) Cystine

(4) Methionine

3. A practical way to supplement iron and copper to the newborn piglets to prevent piglet anemia is                                                                                                                                                         

                                                                                                      RPSC 2019

(1) Giving injections of copper to newborn piglets.

(2) Giving injections of Vitamin E to newborn piglets.

(3) Painting the udder of sow with a thick solution of copper and iron sulphate.

(4) Allowing the newborn piglets to access soil.

4. Pre starter broiler ration contain critical methionine: opsc 2018-19 

(A) 3%

(B) 2%

(C) 1.2%

(D) None of the above

5. Where does fermentation primarily occur in pigs, which are hindgut fermenters?
a) Stomach
b) Caecum and Colon
c) Small intestine
d) Rumen

6. At what age should creep feed be introduced to piglets?
a) At birth
b) 7-14 days
c) 2 weeks
d) 8 weeks

7. What is the recommended crude protein (CP) content in a grower ration for pigs?
a) 16%
b) 18%
c) 20%
d) 14%

8. What injection should be given to piglets on the 4th and 14th day of age to prevent anemia?
a) Iron dextran injection
b) Vitamin D injection
c) Calcium supplement
d) Zinc sulfate injection

9. Which amino acid is the first limiting factor in pig growth and development?
a) Methionine
b) Arginine
c) Leucine
d) Lysine

10. What is the recommended weaning age for piglets in India?
a) 4 weeks
b) 6 weeks
c) 8 weeks
d) 10 weeks

11. What is the protein requirement for a finisher ration for pigs?
a) 16% CP
b) 20% CP
c) 14% CP
d) 18% CP

12. Which of the following unconventional feedstuff can be used up to 10% in pig rations?
a) Pineapple waste
b) Sweet potato
c) Tapioca waste
d) Decaffeinated tea waste

Feeding Practices for poultry Topic 2 MCQs

1. Energy requirement (Kcal/Kg feed) in broiler finisher ration as per 815, 2007 is: PUNJAB 2016

a) 2800

b) 2900

c) 3100

d) 3200

2. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid for poultry: PUNJAB 2016

a) Arginine

b) Glicine

c) Valine

d) Glutamate

3.  As per BIS (1992), CP and ME content of broiler starter feed should be MPSC 2011    

(1) 20%, 2900 kcal/kg

 (2) 23%, 2800 kcal/kg

(3) 20%, 2800 kcal/kg

(4) 23%, 2600 kcal/kg

4. Maximum level of inclusion of maize in poultry ration is RPSC 2019

(1) 50%

(2) 60%

(3) 70%

(4) 80%

5. What is the optimum Ca ratio for laying hens to support bone and shell formation?
a) 1:1
b) 1:1.2
c) 1:4
d) 1:2

6. What happens to poultry feed intake as environmental temperature increases?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains constant
d) It fluctuates unpredictably

7. What is the recommended crude protein (CP) content in a pre-starter broiler feed?
a) 23%
b) 20%
c) 18%
d) 16%

8. Which vitamin deficiency can lead to slipped tendon disease in poultry?
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin A
c) Manganese
d) Vitamin C

9. What is the effect of light exposure on egg production in hens?
a) Decreases feed intake
b) Increases egg production
c) Decreases stimulation of the pituitary gland
d) Causes a decrease in body weight

10. At what age does egg production typically peak in laying hens?
a) 20-22 weeks
b) 28-30 weeks
c) 35-40 weeks
d) 60 weeks

Feeding Practices for laboratory animals Topic 3 MCQs

1. What percentage of their body weight do laboratory animals typically consume in food daily?
   • a) 1-2%
   • b) 4-6%
   • c) 8-10%
   • d) 2-3%
2. What is the range of protein requirement for growing animals like rats?
   • a) 5-7%
   • b) 8-10%
   • c) 12-18%
   • d) 20-25%
3. What is the calcium to phosphorus ratio recommended in the diet of laboratory animals?
   • a) 0.8:1
   • b) 1.2-1.6:1
   • c) 2:1
   • d) 1:1
4. Which type of fatty acids are required in the diet of rats at 0.4% of their dietary metabolizable energy?
   • a) n-6 fatty acids
   • b) n-3 fatty acids
   • c) Saturated fatty acids
   • d) Monounsaturated fatty acids
5. What is the protein requirement for maintenance in adult rats?
   • a) 10-12%
   • b) 8-10%
   • c) 5-7%
   • d) 20-25%
6. Which vitamins are considered the most critical for laboratory animals?
   • a) Vitamins B and K
   • b) Vitamins C and B12
   • c) Vitamins A, D, and E
   • d) Vitamins B6 and C
7. Why is vitamin E supplementation particularly important for laboratory animals?
   • a) For muscle growth
   • b) For stressed animals
   • c) For bone strength
   • d) For better digestion
8. Why are commercially manufactured diets preferred for laboratory animals?
   • a) They are cheaper
   • b) They are easier to store
   • c) They are more uniform and contaminant-free
   • d) They are more flavorful
9. How is feed typically provided to small laboratory animals like rats?
   • a) In timed intervals
   • b) Ad libitum
   • c) Once a day
   • d) Twice a day
10. What quality should laboratory animal feed have to meet the behavioral needs of the animals?

d) High-fiber

a) Nutritionally dense

b) High-protein

c) Easily accessible and palatable

Metabolic Disorder  and Symptom Topic 4 MCQs

1. Following condition/s in lactating cows and buffaloes observed in ketosis/are                   

UTTARAKHAND VO – 2024          

a)     Hypoglycemia

b)     Anorexia

c)     Milk production decreases

                   D)  All of these

2. What is the recommended dietary cation-anion difference (DCAD) Per kg DM of feed for prevention of milk fever, in cattle? Mppsc 2019

(A) -50-60 1 Msg/Kg feed DM

(B) -65-70 1 Msg/Kg feed DM

(C) -100-200 Msg/Kg feed DM

(D) -75-85 Msg/Kg feed DM

3. In milk fever, body temperature of animal remains Punjab 2023

(a) Subnormal

(b) Elevated

(c) Highly elevated

(d) Normal

4. Ketosis occurs due to: Punjab 2023

(a) Positive energy balance in body

(b) Negative energy balance in body

(c) Positive protein balance in body

(d) None of the above

5. Eclampsia in dog is caused by deficiency of Punjab 2023

(a) Iron

(b) Phosphorus

(c) Calcium

(d) Copper

6. Basic biochemical defect in PPH Punjab 2023

(a) Hypocalcemia

(b) Hypoglycemia

(c) Hypophosphatemia

(d) None of the above

7. Following drug is specifically recommended in the treatment of post-parturient haemoglobinuria 

Punjab 2023

(a) Calcium borogluconate

(b) 50% Dextrose

(c) Sodium acid phosphate

(d) 10% Magnesium sulphate

8. Lactic acidosis is caused by

(1) Accidental ingestion of large quantities of wheat grains

(2) Excessive intake of green fodder

(3) Excessive ingestion of dry fodder

(4) Excessive intake of Urea

9. Fatty liver disease is often associated with   Punjab 2021

(A) Choline

(B) Niacin

(C) Thiamine

(D) Pyridoxine

10. Post parturient haemoglobinuria or Red Water Disease is basically caused due to acute deficiency of which mineral in the blood? RPSC 2013

(1) Copper

(2) Magnesium

(3) Phosphorus

(4) Calcium

11. Prepartum feeding of which of the following diets will significantly minimize the occurrence of parturient paresis in dairy cows? MPPSC 2023

[A] Negative DCAD diet

[B] High energy diet

[C] Positive DCAD diet

[D] Low roughage diet

12. Milk fever can be grouped as a disease of: OPSC 2018-2019

(A) Deficiency disease

(B) Infectious disease

(C) Metabolic disease

(D) Toxicological condition

13. One of the following feeding regimen causes acute lactic acidosis in ruminants:

(A) Low grain rations

(B) High grain rations

(C) Abruptly switching from high grain ration to hay

(D) Feeding only hay

Miscellaneous MCQ

1. Which feeding system for swine is most common in the United States?
   A) Liquid feeding
   B) Wet-dry feeding
   C) Dry complete feed
   D) Fermented feed
2. What is the recommended particle size for ground corn in swine diets?
   A) 200-300 microns
   B) 400-500 microns
   C) 550-600 microns
   D) 700-800 microns
3. Which feed additive is commonly used to improve feed efficiency in growing-finishing pigs?
   A) Probiotics
   B) Ractopamine
   C) Antibiotics
   D) Enzymes
4. In poultry nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using crumble feed for young chicks?
   A) To increase water intake
   B) To reduce feed wastage
   C) To improve feed intake and growth
   D) To prevent coccidiosis
5. Which feeding method is most commonly used for broiler chickens?
   A) Restricted feeding
   B) Intermittent feeding
   C) Ad libitum feeding
   D) Phase feeding
6. What is the recommended calcium to available phosphorus ratio in layer hen diets?
   A) 1:1
   B) 2:1
   C) 3.6:1
   D) 5:1
7. In laboratory animal nutrition, what is the primary advantage of using purified diets?
   A) Lower cost
   B) Better palatability
   C) Greater control over nutrient composition
   D) Improved shelf life
8. Which of the following is NOT a common form of diet for laboratory rodents?
   A) Pelleted diet
   B) Powdered diet
   C) Fermented diet
   D) Gel diet
9. What is the primary purpose of using autoclaved diets in laboratory animal nutrition?
   A) To improve palatability
   B) To increase nutrient density
   C) To reduce microbial contamination
   D) To enhance digestibility
10. Which metabolic disorder is most commonly associated with high-producing dairy cows in early lactation?
    A) Milk fever
    B) Ketosis
    C) Grass tetany
    D) Bloat
11. What is the primary cause of fatty liver syndrome in dairy cattle?
    A) Excessive protein intake
    B) Negative energy balance
    C) Mineral deficiency
    D) Rumen acidosis
12. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of hypocalcemia in dairy cows?
    A) Increased milk production
    B) Hyperactivity
    C) Muscle tremors and weakness
    D) Excessive salivation
13. In swine nutrition, what is the primary purpose of phase feeding?
    A) To reduce feed costs
    B) To improve feed efficiency
    C) To match nutrient supply with changing requirements
    D) To prevent metabolic disorders
14. Which feeding system for swine allows for the most precise control of individual feed intake?
    A) Wet-dry feeders
    B) Round feeders
    C) Electronic sow feeding stations
    D) Trough feeding
15. What is the recommended lysine to metabolizable energy ratio for growing-finishing pigs (50-80 kg)?
    A) 1.5 g/Mcal
    B) 2.5 g/Mcal
    C) 3.5 g/Mcal
    D) 4.5 g/Mcal
16. In poultry nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using split feeding for laying hens?
    A) To reduce feed costs
    B) To improve egg shell quality
    C) To match calcium supply with shell formation timing
    D) To prevent feather pecking
17. Which feeding strategy is most effective in reducing the incidence of ascites in broilers raised at high altitudes?
    A) Increasing dietary fat
    B) Restricting feed intake
    C) Supplementing with vitamin C
    D) Feeding whole grains
18. What is the primary advantage of using precision feeding systems in broiler production?
    A) Reduced labor costs
    B) Improved feed conversion
    C) Better matching of nutrient supply to bird requirements
    D) Decreased environmental impact
19. In laboratory animal nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using chemically defined diets?
    A) To improve palatability
    B) To reduce costs
    C) To eliminate dietary variables in research
    D) To increase shelf life
20. Which of the following is NOT a common method for sterilizing laboratory animal diets?
    A) Autoclaving
    B) Irradiation
    C) Fermentation
    D) Ethylene oxide treatment
21. What is the primary advantage of using gnotobiotic animals in nutritional research?
    A) Lower research costs
    B) Faster growth rates
    C) Elimination of microbial influences on nutrition
    D) Improved feed efficiency
22. Which metabolic disorder is characterized by low blood magnesium levels in cattle?
    A) Milk fever
    B) Ketosis
    C) Grass tetany
    D) Acidosis
23. What is the primary cause of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants?
    A) Copper deficiency
    B) Thiamine deficiency or sulfur toxicity
    C) Selenium toxicity
    D) Calcium imbalance
24. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of pregnancy toxemia in ewes?
    A) Increased appetite
    B) Ketone odor in breath
    C) Hypercalcemia
    D) Excessive urination
25. In swine nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using acidifiers in weanling pig diets?
    A) To improve protein digestibility
    B) To increase feed intake
    C) To reduce post-weaning diarrhea
    D) To enhance mineral absorption
26. Which feeding method is most effective in reducing the incidence of gastric ulcers in growing-finishing pigs?
    A) Pelleted diets
    B) Coarsely ground diets
    C) Liquid feeding
    D) Restricted feeding
27. What is the recommended omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acid ratio in sow diets for optimal reproductive performance?
    A) 1:1
    B) 5:1
    C) 10:1
    D) 20:1
28. In poultry nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using phytase enzymes?
    A) To improve protein digestibility
    B) To reduce ammonia emissions
    C) To increase phosphorus availability
    D) To enhance energy utilization
29. Which feeding strategy is most effective in reducing the incidence of sudden death syndrome in broilers?
    A) Increasing dietary vitamin E
    B) Implementing skip-a-day feeding
    C) Supplementing with electrolytes
    D) Feeding whole grains
30. What is the primary advantage of using near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS) in poultry feed formulation?
    A) Improved palatability
    B) Rapid nutrient analysis
    C) Enhanced feed efficiency
    D) Reduced feed costs
31. In laboratory animal nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using food restriction in aging studies?
    A) To reduce research costs
    B) To improve animal welfare
    C) To extend lifespan and reduce age-related diseases
    D) To increase reproducibility of results
32. Which of the following is NOT a common method for assessing body composition in laboratory animals?
    A) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
    B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
    C) Electrophoresis
    D) Bioelectrical impedance analysis
33. What is the primary advantage of using germfree animals in nutritional toxicology studies?
    A) Lower research costs
    B) Faster growth rates
    C) Elimination of microbial metabolism of toxicants
    D) Improved feed efficiency
34. Which metabolic disorder is characterized by low blood calcium levels immediately after calving in dairy cows?
    A) Ketosis
    B) Milk fever (hypocalcemia)
    C) Grass tetany
    D) Acidosis
35. What is the primary cause of ruminal acidosis in cattle?
    A) Excessive protein intake
    B) Rapid fermentation of readily digestible carbohydrates
    C) Mineral imbalance
    D) Dehydration
36. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of selenium toxicity in livestock?
    A) Increased appetite
    B) Improved fertility
    C) Sloughing of hooves
    D) Enhanced immune function
37. In swine nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using spray-dried plasma in nursery pig diets?
    A) To improve protein digestibility
    B) To increase feed intake
    C) To enhance immune function and growth performance
    D) To reduce diarrhea
38. Which feeding method is most effective in reducing the incidence of tail biting in growing-finishing pigs?
    A) Pelleted diets
    B) Liquid feeding
    C) Provision of enrichment materials
    D) Restricted feeding
39. What is the recommended lysine to crude protein ratio in ideal protein formulations for growing pigs?
    A) 3%
    B) 7%
    C) 10%
    D) 15%
40. In poultry nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using organic trace minerals?
    A) To improve palatability
    B) To reduce feed costs
    C) To enhance bioavailability and reduce excretion
    D) To increase feed intake
41. Which feeding strategy is most effective in reducing the incidence of fatty liver hemorrhagic syndrome in laying hens?
    A) Increasing dietary fat
    B) Restricting energy intake
    C) Supplementing with choline
    D) Feeding whole grains
42. What is the primary advantage of using choice feeding systems in layer hen production?
    A) Reduced labor costs
    B) Improved egg quality
    C) Better matching of nutrient intake to individual requirements
    D) Decreased environmental impact
43. In laboratory animal nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using pair-feeding in toxicology studies?
    A) To improve palatability
    B) To reduce costs
    C) To control for differences in food intake between treatment groups
    D) To increase reproducibility of results
44. Which of the following is NOT a common method for assessing energy expenditure in laboratory animals?
    A) Indirect calorimetry
    B) Doubly labeled water technique
    C) Electromyography
    D) Direct calorimetry
45. What is the primary advantage of using metabolic cages in laboratory animal nutrition studies?
    A) Improved animal welfare
    B) Faster growth rates
    C) Accurate measurement of nutrient intake and excretion
    D) Enhanced social interaction
46. Which metabolic disorder is characterized by low blood glucose levels and elevated ketone bodies in dairy cows?
    A) Milk fever
    B) Ketosis
    C) Grass tetany
    D) Acidosis
47. What is the primary cause of abomasal displacement in dairy cattle?
    A) Excessive protein intake
    B) Accumulation of gas in the abomasum
    C) Mineral imbalance
    D) Dehydration
48. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of copper toxicity in sheep?
    A) Increased appetite
    B) Improved wool quality
    C) Hemolytic crisis and jaundice
    D) Enhanced immune function
49. In swine nutrition, what is the primary purpose of using medium-chain fatty acids in nursery pig diets?
    A) To improve protein digestibility
    B) To increase feed intake
    C) To enhance gut health and reduce pathogen load
    D) To improve fat digestibility
50. Which feeding method is most effective in reducing the incidence of stereotypic behaviors in gestating sows?
    A) Trickle feeding
    B) Provision of high-fiber diets
    C) Liquid feeding
    D) Restricted feeding