Test 6 on 06-12-2024

1. A food-borne outbreak is an example of:

(a) Point source epidemic
(b) Propagating epidemic
(c) Periodic fluctuation
(d) None of the above

2. Somatic Cell Count (SCC) is related to:

(a) Udder health
(b) Cellular structure
(c) Uterine health
(d) Estrus detection

3. Which of the following diseases is zoonotic?

(a) BQ
(b) HS
(c) Anthrax
(d) Mastitis

4. Principles of HACCP include:

(a) Identification of potential hazards
(b) Identification of CCP
(c) Establishing corrective actions

Options:

1. (a) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only
   4. All are correct

5. Match the following:

Answer:

  (a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I)

  (a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III)

  (a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III)

  (a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II)

6. If SPC per ml of raw milk is less than two lakhs as prescribed by BIS, the milk is:

(a) Very good
(b) Good
(c) Fair
(d) Poor

7. The best first antimicrobial agents to treat septicemia in a newborn foal are:

(a) Penicillin sulfate and Gentamicin
(b) Trimethoprim and sulfadiazine
(c) Sodium ampicillin and Streptomycin
(d) Chloramphenicol

8. The loading dose of a drug primarily depends on:

(a) Volume of distribution
(b) Clearance
(c) Rate of administration
(d) Half-life

9. Inter-dose interval depends on:

(a) Half-life of the drug
(b) Dose of the drug
(c) Age of the patient
(d) Bioavailability of the drug

10. Which of the following drugs is bacteriostatic?

(a) Sulphadimidine
(b) Penicillin-G
(c) Griseofulvin
(d) Cephalexin

11. Which drug increases gastrointestinal motility?

(a) Glycopyrrolate
(b) Atropine
(c) Neostigmine
(d) None of the above

12. Drug of choice for acute organophosphate poisoning is:

(a) Atropine
(b) Neostigmine
(c) Carbachol
(d) None of the above

13. Mechanism of action of tetracycline:

(a) Binding to the 30s ribosome of bacteria
(b) Binding to phospholipids of bacteria
(c) Binding to the 50s ribosome of bacteria
(d) Inhibition of DNA gyrase of bacteria

14. Treatment of lead toxicity involves:

(a) EDTA acid
(b) Calcium disodium edetate
(c) Sodium EDTA
(d) None of the above

15. Mechanism of action of organophosphorus insecticides is:

(a) Antagonizing action of GABA receptors
(b) Altering Na⁺ and K⁺ flux across nerve cell membranes
(c) Inhibition of calmodulin Ca²⁺ binding
(d) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase enzyme

16. Muscarinic receptors for acetylcholine are found in:

(a) Smooth muscles
(b) Heart
(c) Exocrine glands
(d) All of the above

17. Which animal can tolerate hypoxic conditions at high altitudes by producing nitric oxide (NO)?

(a) Cattle
(b) Horse
(c) Sheep
(d) Dog

18. The phenomenon “Dale’s epinephrine reversal” occurs due to blockage of:

(a) α₁ receptor
(b) α₂ receptor
(c) β₁ receptor
(d) β₂ receptor

19. The preferred site for intramuscular injection in adult cattle:

(a) Gluteal region
(b) Neck region
(c) Pectoral region
(d) Lumbar region

20. The “blue bag” condition in ewes refers to:

(a) Pneumonia
(b) Gangrenous mastitis
(c) Enterotoxemia
(d) Listeriosis

21. The Schirmer Tear Test (STT) is used to diagnose:

(a) Uveitis
(b) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Corneal ulceration

22. The primary function of bile salts in digestion is:

(a) Protein digestion
(b) Carbohydrate digestion
(c) Fat emulsification
(d) Vitamin absorption

23. Which stain is used to identify acid-fast bacteria?

(a) Gram stain
(b) Giemsa stain
(c) Wright’s stain
(d) Ziehl-Neelsen stain

24. The most common cause of frothy bloat in cattle is:

(a) Grain overload
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Legume grazing
(d) Parasites

25. Hypoglycemia in cattle is most commonly associated with:

(a) Ketosis
(b) Milk fever
(c) Mastitis
(d) Hardware disease

26. The primary infectious agent responsible for avian leukosis:

(a) Bacteria
(b) Parasite
(c) Protozoa
(d) Retrovirus

27. The causative agent of “wooden tongue” in cattle is:

(a) Fusobacterium necrophorum
(b) Actinobacillus lignieresii
(c) Pasteurella multocida
(d) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

28. The gestation period of a pig is:

(a) 100–110 days
(b) 112–115 days
(c) 120–125 days
(d) 130–135 days

29. The vector of Trypanosoma evansi in cattle:

(a) Ticks
(b) Tabanus flies
(c) Mosquitoes
(d) Fleas

30. Vitamin deficiency that causes “curled toe paralysis” in poultry:

(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K

31. Which pathogen is responsible for contagious ecthyma (orf) in sheep and goats?

(a) Bacteria
(b) Parasite
(c) Poxvirus
(d) Protozoa

32. Which type of immunity is transferred through colostrum?

(a) Active immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Cellular immunity
(d) Innate immunity

33. Most sensitive test for detection of sugar in urine is:

(a) Rothera’s test
(b) Benedict’s test
(c) Barfoed test
(d) Hay’s sulfur test

34. Which hormone is derived from amino acid/amine derivatives?

(a) Thyroxine
(b) Insulin
(c) Progesterone
(d) Growth hormone

35. Before the first estrous cycle, bovine mammary glands grow faster than the whole body. This is called:

(a) Isometric growth
(b) Allometric growth
(c) Absolute growth
(d) Relative growth

36. Lactic acidosis is caused by:

(a) Sudden change from high roughage to highly soluble carbohydrate feeding
(b) Rapid fermentation by Streptococcus bovis
(c) L-lactic acid cannot be metabolized by the liver
(d) D-lactic acid cannot be metabolized by the liver

37. Multiple defects in the absorption of glucose, amino acids, calcium, and sodium in the renal tubule are observed in:

(a) Fanconi-like syndrome
(b) Addison’s disease
(c) Cushing syndrome
(d) Cori disease

38. Ketosis caused by feeding spoiled silage containing excessive butyric acid is called:

(a) Underfeeding ketosis
(b) Overfeeding ketosis
(c) Spontaneous ketosis
(d) Alimentary ketosis

39. Which vice is most common in mares?

(a) Kicking and biting
(b) Jumping
(c) Racing
(d) Throwing feed out of the manger

40. Which of the following animals achieves maximum live weight gain in the shortest time?

(a) Calf
(b) Sheep
(c) Pig
(d) Goat

41. Which of the following is not an accessory sex gland in bulls?

(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Prostate gland
(c) Bulbourethral gland
(d) Preputial gland

42. Which animal has the shortest gestation period?

(a) Bitch
(b) Ewe
(c) Doe
(d) Rabbit doe

43. The shape of the tip of the penis in a boar is:

(a) Straight
(b) Bent
(c) Spiral
(d) Cylindrical

44. The main site for absorption of digested nutrients is:

(a) Stomach
(b) Esophagus
(c) Small intestine
(d) Large intestine

45. The amount of saliva produced daily by sheep on a normal diet is:

(a) 5 L
(b) 15 L
(c) 10 L
(d) 20 L

46. In ruminants, ammonia is converted to urea in the:

(a) Rumen
(b) Abomasum
(c) Liver
(d) Intestine

47. The hormone promoting lobulo-alveolar growth in the mammary gland is:

(a) Progesterone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Somatotropin
(d) Prolactin

48. The precursor of prostaglandin F2α is:

(a) Tyrosine
(b) Arachidonic acid
(c) Phenylalanine
(d) Tryptophan

49. The best site for collection of CSF in cattle and buffalo is:

(a) Atlanto-occipital junction
(b) Cisterna magna
(c) Subarachnoid space
(d) None of the above

50. Extra chromic catgut (Type D) is absorbed in about:

(a) 10 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 40 days

51. Rumenotomy is performed under which type of local anesthesia?

(a) Infiltration anesthesia
(b) Surface anesthesia
(c) Spinal/epidural anesthesia
(d) None of the above

52. Which suture material is not absorbed into the body tissues?

(a) Kangaroo tendon
(b) Umbilical tape
(c) Catgut
(d) All of the above

53. The main reducing agent used in developing chemicals for radiography is:

(a) Hydroquinone
(b) Salts of aluminum
(c) Sodium thiosulfate
(d) None of the above

54. The example of positive contrast media used in radiography is:

(a) Air
(b) Oxygen
(c) Barium
(d) None of the above

55. The term “hyperechoic” is used in:

(a) Ultrasonography
(b) Radiography
(c) Scintigraphy
(d) Fluoroscopy

56. Which of the following is not a feature of neoplasm?

(a) Pleomorphism
(b) Anaplasia
(c) Mitosis
(d) Dysplasia

57. Regeneration or repair depends on:

(a) Type of tissue
(b) Extent of defect
(c) Duration of trauma
(d) All of the above

58. In shock, the level of ATP can be increased by using:

(a) Thromboxane
(b) Leukotrienes
(c) Prostacyclin
(d) All of the above

59. Paralysis of the hindquarters is termed as:

(a) Hemiplegia
(b) Monoplegia
(c) Quadriplegia
(d) Paraplegia

60. Plaster of Paris is a powder of:

(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Magnesium sulfate
(c) Zinc sulfate
(d) Calcium sulfate

61. Which anesthetic is contraindicated in cats?

(a) Amobarbital
(b) Propofol
(c) Diazepam
(d) Ketamine

62. Sterilization of an operation theatre can be done by:

(a) Nitrous oxide gas
(b) Steaming
(c) Ethylene oxide gas
(d) UV irradiation

63. Which of the following is an absorbable suture material?

(a) Polydioxanone
(b) Prolene
(c) Silk
(d) Cotton

64. The preferred temperature for storing fertile eggs for hatchability is:

(a) 16°C
(b) 24°C
(c) 26°C
(d) 28°C

65. The “Designer Egg” is modified in nutrient content by:

(a) Inducing metabolic changes in the hen
(b) Altering membrane transport characteristics
(c) Manipulating the diet of the hen
(d) All of the above

66. The number of eggs laid by a hen on consecutive days without a gap is called:

(a) Pause
(b) Persistency
(c) Clutch
(d) None of the above

67. Match the species of poultry with their zoological names:

Answer:

1. (a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III)
2. (a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV)
3. (a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I)
4. (a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV)

68. Match the breeds of chicken with their classes:

Answer:

1. (a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV)
2. (a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III)
3. (a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III)
4. (a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III)

69. Match the parts of the oviduct with the time taken for egg passage:

Answer:

1. (a-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I)
2. (a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I)
3. (a-I, b-IV, c-III, d-II)
4. (a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III)

70. BSE (Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy) is caused by:

(a) Prion
(b) Virion
(c) Bacteria
(d) All of the above

71. Nodules and ulcer formation in the respiratory tract and skin are present in:

(a) Glanders/Farcy
(b) Black disease/Infectious hepatitis
(c) ICH
(d) Strangles

72. Tongue, soft tissues, and lymph nodes are affected in which disease?

(a) Actinobacillosis
(b) Actinomycosis
(c) Anthrax
(d) All of the above

73. Enteric and myocardial forms occur in which disease?

(a) Infectious canine hepatitis
(b) Parvo viral enteritis
(c) Canine distemper
(d) All of the above

74. The Livestock Importation Act was originally enacted in the year:

(a) 1953
(b) 1898
(c) 1990
(d) 1941

75. Diagnostic test done in hyperuricemia to assess kidney function is:

(a) Blood urea nitrogen
(b) Plasma creatinine
(c) Serum uric acid
(d) Serum malondialdehyde

76. Membranous obstruction at the base of the teat restricting milk flow is called:

(a) Teat tumor
(b) Hard milker
(c) Teat spider
(d) Imperforate teats

77. As postmortem decomposition advances, the corneas become cloudy and grey at:

(a) 6 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 18 hours
(d) 24 hours

78. Liquefactive necrosis is common in the brain due to all of the following except:

(a) Rich lipid content
(b) Rich lytic enzymes
(c) Rich blood supply
(d) Lack of fibrous interstitium

79. Pleocytosis indicates:

(a) Ingestion of foreign materials by cells
(b) Variation in the size of cells
(c) Increase in leukocytes in blood
(d) Increase in nucleated cells in CSF

80. Kyasanur Forest Disease is caused by:

(a) Flavivirus
(b) Reovirus
(c) Orbivirus
(d) Rotavirus

81. Wooden tongue in cattle is caused by:

(a) Actinomycosis
(b) Actinobacillosis
(c) Campylobacteriosis
(d) Pasteurellosis

82. India’s first indigenous homologous live-attenuated Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD) vaccine was made using a strain from:

(a) Delhi
(b) Hisar
(c) Ranchi
(d) Bareilly

83. Which is not a method of anaerobic bacterial cultivation?

(a) Candle jar method
(b) Anaerobic jar method
(c) Cocultivation with aerobic bacteria
(d) Incubator shaking method

84. Which bacterial species exists in a free-living form in soil?

(a) Pasteurella species
(b) Yersinia species
(c) Clostridium species
(d) Staphylococcus species

85. Which enzyme helps bacteria spread by breaking down connective tissue?

(a) Peptidase
(b) Hyaluronidase
(c) Catalase
(d) Peroxidase

86. Genetic recombination in bacteria involving bacteriophages is called:

(a) Transformation
(b) Conjugation
(c) Transduction
(d) Inversion

87. The cause of acute mastitis in cattle is:

(a) Streptococcus pyogenes
(b) Streptococcus agalactiae
(c) Streptococcus dysgalactiae
(d) Staphylococcus hyicus

88. The incubation temperature for observing tumbling motility in Listeria monocytogenes is:

(a) 15°C
(b) 25°C
(c) 4°C
(d) 37°C

89. Which is not a characteristic feature of Bacillus anthracis?

(a) Susceptibility to penicillin
(b) Motile
(c) Non-hemolytic
(d) Arranged in long chains

90. Which organ in dogs is commonly affected by Malassezia pachydermatis?

(a) Eye
(b) Ear
(c) Throat
(d) Intestine

91. Aflatoxicosis is associated with:

(a) Neurotoxicity
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Hepatotoxicity
(d) Nephrotoxicity

92. The temperature range for the denaturation step in PCR is:

(a) 50–70°C
(b) 68–75°C
(c) 90–96°C
(d) 100–110°C

93. The use of BLAST software is for:

(a) Comparing DNA sequences with a database
(b) DNA sequencing
(c) RNA sequencing
(d) Protein sequencing

94. Which helps in opsonization?

(a) Fibrinogen
(b) C-reactive protein
(c) Haptoglobin
(d) Ceruloplasmin

95. Where are undifferentiated lymphocytes formed?

(a) Bone marrow
(b) Thymus
(c) Spleen
(d) Lymph nodes

96. Interferon-gamma is produced by:

(a) Th1 cells
(b) Th2 cells
(c) B cells
(d) Plasma cells

97. Burkholderia mallei is a major pathogen of which species?

(a) Bovine
(b) Caprine
(c) Ovine
(d) Equine

98. Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for the diagnosis of:

(a) Sarcocystosis
(b) Toxoplasmosis
(c) Neosporosis
(d) Babesiosis

99. The preferred method for hatchability in fertile eggs stored for up to seven days is:

(a) 16°C storage
(b) 20°C storage
(c) 25°C storage
(d) 30°C storage

100. Wooden tongue is commonly caused by

(a) Actinobacillus lignieresii
(b) Fusobacterium necrophorum
(c) Pasteurella multocida
(d) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis